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It's still not obvious to me (although I believe it) why all representations of finite groups are defined over cyclotomic fields. Could you sketch that argument?
You mean eventually zero. Now you know that the residue mod 5^m and the residue mod 2^m uniquely determines the residue mod 10^m by CRT, and you know that one is periodic and the other is eventually constant. What can you conclude?
A more succinct way to put this is that Z/2Z doesn't have any non-identity elements; in other words, 2 is "degenerate." But for some reason I don't find this very satisfying.
Yes, that's more or less what I was trying to say in my parenthetical comment. But I can't decide whether this is deep or whether it's just because historically mathematicians happen to like additive inverses.
I'm not sure the premise of this question is valid any more than the core question of group theory is to figure out whether an isomorphism exists between two groups.