Of course thank you Matthew, I misread the word 'translate'. Regards

Thank you Matthew, but there is still something that I don't understand. Following your argument we prove that every invariant function is the zero function, contradicting the fact that every *-automorphism of $C(X)$ leaves $I$ fixed, i.e. $I$ must be fixed by an automorphic action (which is equivalent to the topological one in the commutative case). Tell me if it's non-sense. Thank you again, Best regards