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Thanks so much for your comment. I actually saw your question but couldn't say anything noteworthy about it off the top of my head. What wonderful implications what you wrote has. I hope that there will be more interesting facts that will emerge, whether on MO or not, in regards to this topic. Thanks again.
I'd guess that you could try to plug in the relevant values into the explicit formula (for example see equation (2) here: math.ubc.ca/~gerg/teaching/613-Winter2011/LinnikTheorem.pdf) and do the computations, but I'll leave a more authoritative statement on this to the experts.
Hi...would this question I asked recently help? mathoverflow.net/questions/88174/… Taking $n$ as the product of all primes up to $x^{1/2}$ and applying Prime Number Theorem and Merten's theorem gives error asymptotic to constant times $x/\log x$, whereas $k$ is only $\pi(x^{1/2})$.
This looks quite relevant to a question I was asking...The paper says that $\sum_{n}\frac{\epsilon_n}{n}$ converges almost surely. Does that remain true if the $\epsilon_n$ can be $0$, but the nonzero $\epsilon_n$ are $\pm 1$ with equal probability?
