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Robert W.'s user avatar
Robert W.'s user avatar
Robert W.
  • Member for 4 years, 3 months
  • Last seen more than 2 years ago
  • Munich, Germany
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Covariance inequality with Lipschitz functions
That's because (1) need not hold for $cX$ and $cY$.
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Covariance inequality with Lipschitz functions
The hypothesis in (1) implies (2) and (4), and (2) supposedly implies (3). I don't see where my logic fails.
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Covariance inequality with Lipschitz functions
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