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JustWannaKnow
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Representations of the Lorentz group
@IgorKhavkine my comment applies specially to you, since what you said looks precisely what I'm looking for.
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Representations of the Lorentz group
Hey guys, thanks for the comments! If possible, I'd like some suggestions on these topics you mentioned. I've never studied Lie grous and its representations, I have no idea where to begin.
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What is the relationship between the Dirac algebra and the Clifford algebra?
user347489 in summary, I can use the definition on my post (with arbitrary $V$ and using the universal property) and prove its existence by using the quotient of the tensor algebra with the ideal generatedby $u\otimes u - B(u,v)$ as Greub does. This proves existence. If $V$ is finite-dimensional and $\mathbb{K}$ has characteristic different from 2, taking a symmetric bilinear form with signature $(p,q)$ leads to $\mathcal{Cl}(V,\Phi)$, which is essentially what Greub constructed but with some additional hypothesis. Finally, take $B$ to be the Minkowski inner product to get $\mathcal{Cl}_{1,3}$
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What is the relationship between the Dirac algebra and the Clifford algebra?
user347489, what is your definition of an "orthogonal bilinear form"? Does it mean that $V$ has a basis $\{v_{\alpha}\}_{\alpha \in I}$ where $B(v_{\alpha},v_{\beta}) = 0$ whenever $\alpha \neq \beta$? (I guess you are not thinking of finite-dimensional vector spaces necessarily, right?)
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What is the relationship between the Dirac algebra and the Clifford algebra?
@IgorKhavkine I think I'm getting the idea. I'm going to work out the details!
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What is the relationship between the Dirac algebra and the Clifford algebra?
An additional comment: I just checked the construction on Greub's book and he uses the ideal $u\otimes u -B(u,u)$ apparently. Is this equivalent to your approach?
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What is the relationship between the Dirac algebra and the Clifford algebra?
Also, If you have other references to suggest, where this construction using quotient space is done, I'd appreciate.
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What is the relationship between the Dirac algebra and the Clifford algebra?
Your partial answer is already very useful! So, in short: I can keep my definition using quadratic forms as it is and show that the construction via quotient spaces provide a particular example where the definition holds (i.e. it proves the existence). I guess this is what Greub does. After, I have to choose $B$,$V$ and so on to construct the Dirac algebra. Is that correct? I still need to understand the details about the second part, on how to construct the Dirac algebra from the general quotient construction tho.
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What is the relationship between the Dirac algebra and the Clifford algebra?
@Peter I'm definitely not much trained on this subject so I don't know if I understood you correctly, but here are some comments. This is the most general definition of a Clifford algebra I know and I've seen some proofs of its existence in books. Thus, I'm considering it exists. In any case, if I succeed on showing that the Dirac algebra satisfies the properties of the definition, I'd be indirectly proving its existence again by constructing an explicit example of it. Did I answer your question?
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Free field rigorous quantization - possibly a misunderstanding?
@PedroLauridsenRibeiro I editted the post and corrected what you pointed out: $E$ is defined for $f \in \mathscr{S}(\mathbb{R}^{4})$ instead of $\mathscr{H}$.
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Free field rigorous quantization - possibly a misunderstanding?
$a(E\mbox{Re}(f)-iE\mbox{Im}(f)) = a(C\{E\mbox{Re}(f)+iE \mbox{Im}(f)\}) = a (CEf)$, as proposed by Reed & Simon. But I had to use the fact that $Ef \in \mathscr{H}_{C}$. If not, it is not clear to me how to justify this factor.
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Free field rigorous quantization - possibly a misunderstanding?
Moreover, take the annihilation operator $a$ for example. iF $f\in \mathscr{S}(\mathbb{R}^{4})$ is arbitrary, we have (I'm gonna omit the $\sqrt{2}^{-1}$ for simplicity): $a^{\dagger}(Ef) + a(Ef) =a^{\dagger}(E\mbox{Re}(f)) + i a^{\dagger}(E\mbox{Im}(f))+ a(E\mbox{Re}(f)) + i a(E\mbox{Im}(f))$. Now, focusing on $a$, we can put these two factors together $a(E\mbox{Re}(f)-i\mbox{Im}(f))$ since $a$ is antilinear. But then, why the factor $C$ arises? This seems to arise only if $E\mbox{Re}(f) = CE\mbox{Re}(f)$ and $E\mbox{Im}(f) = C\mbox{Im}(f)$, since, in this case (cont)
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