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JustWannaKnow
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Can Fock spaces be replaced by arbitrary Hilbert spaces under some hypothesis to justify path integrals?
Idrinehart, very interesting answer. Does the situation change if the perturbation is quartic in the fields? I ask because I've seen some literature where one construct the Fock space and in this Fock space the Hamiltonian is of the form quadractic term + quartic term which is considered as a perturbation.
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Slice in momentum space?
@IgorKhavkine but even in the case $m^{2} = 0$, $\chi_{\kappa}$ is not really zero for $p^{2}$ large, right? I was expecting that the statement meant exactly what you wrote about the $\chi_{\kappa}$ having support in some shell of finite momenta, but it does never seem to be the case.
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From the conceptual idea of the RG to its actual implementation
Also, what is the role of the estimates I mentioned when one does perturbative RG? Are this attempts to prove that higher order powers of $\phi$ are small enough so they do not contribute, as you mentioned?
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From the conceptual idea of the RG to its actual implementation
Carlo, thanks for your answer. The lecture notes will certainly be helpful. But could you clarify a little more your answer? I mean, the renormalization group $\mathscr{R}$ I mentioned in my post changes the effective action, so your answer seem to indicate that one is actually trying to use this map $\mathscr{R}$ so the flow $G \to G' \to \cdots$ end up having a nicer/simpler form. Is this correct? If so, the idea is to get (hopefully) get something one can actually integrate? Or a fixed point, as I mentioned?
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Two questions about Fock spaces
@MikaeldelaSalle thanks for the link and the comments. To answer your question, if $\psi \in \mathcal{F}^{\pm}(\mathscr{H})$ is an arbitrary element, the time-evolved element is $e^{-itH}\psi$. I edited the post to clarify this second question!
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Two questions about Fock spaces
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