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Just to make sure I understand. The residue at $s=\frac{3}{2}$ is given by $I_f = \int_{\mathbb{R}_+^2} f(x,y) dx dy$, and at $s=\frac{1}{2}$ by $c_0=0$ since $f(0,0)=0$?
Me neither. Seems perfectly right. I will calculate the second term and maybe in the end they fit together properly. Must be so since the final result equals half the A-genus.
Thank you for that concise and precise answer. Unfortunately that is not the result as in the paper. Putting $a=\frac{\lambda^2}{2}$ and multiply by a factor 2 should give the value noted in the paper but it doesn't. Although, I came to the same computation and so does WolframAlpha. Did I miss something silly?