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''Maybe only the part of interacting is not axiomized'' Isn't that basically the only interesting part on the physics side? Only axiomatizing free field theory doesn't say much about whether it can be done for interacting fields.
Do we really know at this point that QFT is ''close to an axiomatic description''? The Wikipedia entry also says that ''Dirac formulated quantum mechanics in a way that is close to an axiomatic system'', but this seems debatable.
There is some interesting physics literature based around avoiding the problem that Hodge dualization requires a $\textit{regular}$ metric, whereas in unified theories there could be a ''pregeometric'' regime where the inverse metric does not exist or is singular. journals.aps.org/prd/abstract/10.1103/PhysRevD.105.125010