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Medo
  • Member for 7 years, 1 month
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Reverse Hölder type inequality for the Laplacian raised to a power
Excellent answer. By the way, counterexample is a one word...
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A question on a simple integral with a singular kernel?
This comment is very useful to me. When I numerically-tested singular integrals, I used to isolate the singularity manually, then manually decrease the size of the isolated neighborhood. Thank you.
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If an estimate is false on $L^{1}$, then it is false for the $\delta$ distribution?
Thanks a lot. I appreciate the time and effort you put into making the answer so clear.
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Multidimensional improper Riemann integrals with oscillatory kernels: Existence
Thank you, but I am afraid there is a significant factor of $|\vec{r}|^2$ missing in your computation.
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$f\in (W^{1,p}(\Omega)\cap C(\Omega) \cap L^{\infty}(\Omega))\setminus C(\bar{\Omega})$, $f=0$ on $\partial \Omega$ imply $f\in W^{1,p}_{0}(\Omega)$?
@Jeff. Okay. Let us now connect the two half balls by the small ball $B(0; \epsilon )$ as you suggested. Will $x\mapsto sing (x_{1})$ still be a $W^{1,p}$ function on the connected domain ?
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$f\in (W^{1,p}(\Omega)\cap C(\Omega) \cap L^{\infty}(\Omega))\setminus C(\bar{\Omega})$, $f=0$ on $\partial \Omega$ imply $f\in W^{1,p}_{0}(\Omega)$?
@Jeff. I am confused. On Jan 16 at 22:40, you commented "Either half has a Lipschitz boundary and the trace is well-defined for either half considered separately". Did you mean to say neither "Neither half has a Lipschitz boundary" ?
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$f\in (W^{1,p}(\Omega)\cap C(\Omega) \cap L^{\infty}(\Omega))\setminus C(\bar{\Omega})$, $f=0$ on $\partial \Omega$ imply $f\in W^{1,p}_{0}(\Omega)$?
@Jeff. So, we still do not have an example where $f\in W^{1,p}(\Omega_{i})$, $i=1,2$, $\Omega_{1}$ is a domain not Lipschitz and $f$ does not have trace on $\partial \Omega_{1}$, while $\Omega_{2}$ is a Lipschitz domain and $f$ does have trace on $\Omega_{2}$. This will show that Lipschitz condition on the boundary is necessary for a $W^{1,p}$ function to have trace. Notice that the domain in your previous examples are Lipschitz. Thanks
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$f\in (W^{1,p}(\Omega)\cap C(\Omega) \cap L^{\infty}(\Omega))\setminus C(\bar{\Omega})$, $f=0$ on $\partial \Omega$ imply $f\in W^{1,p}_{0}(\Omega)$?
@Jeff. Thanks a lot. I did learn a lot from your comments. One last concern though. How modify $\Omega$ (the unit ball minus $\{x_{1}=0\}$) to be connected, but still have $f=sgn(x_{1})$, $x\in \Omega$, a $W^{1,p}(\Omega)$ function without a trace, somewhere on the boundary) because the boundary is not Lipschitz? Thanks again for your patience