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Oh, yes. My assumption back then was that they are equal, but now I am asking for a reference to the experimental fact that they are connected by division of $1-t$. I agree that they are similar questions, but I am really interested in the reference. Besides, the two answers (including the link) does not tell anything about the division, which should occur.
It's not the same. I am specifically searching for the difference between the two polynomials (the multivariable Alexander / Conway-Alexander) and am not just questioning the existence (well-definedness) of such a polynomial.
I guess I'm confused. So we are comparing 4 points and the metric you provided and $\mathbb{R}^n$ with Euclidean metric, so I guess that makes sense. So does statements like "In $\mathbb{R}^n$ every Cauchy sequence is convergent" include the fact that $\mathbb{R}^n$ is equipped with the Euclidean metric or does it hold for any metric in $\mathbb{R}^n$? There can be different metrics defined for $\mathbb{R}^n$, right?
