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Questions on group theory which concern finite groups.

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When is the restriction map $res:H^2(G,U(1))\to H^2(Z_p\times Z_p,U(1))$ not the zero map?

Consider $G$ to be a finite group with non-trivial Schur Multipler $H^2(G,U(1))$, where $G$ acts trivially on the circle group $U(1)$. By Example of a Schur-nontrivial group with no abelian subgroup …
David Stephen's user avatar