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user 20391
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If a (linear) relation maps Lagrangian subspaces to Lagrangian subspaces, is it a Lagrangian...
Counterexample: set $U$ to be anything, $V := \text{pt}$, and $\Lambda \subset \overline{U} \oplus \text{pt}$ to be a non-Lagrangian subspace.
(But maybe true with some hypotheses, e.g. $\Lambda$ ind …
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