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For question in Proof Theory, where "proofs" themselves are the object of mathematical investigation. It is not to be used to request a proof of some result.

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Further research on relevant realizability etc

I thought this was an interesting question and so I asked some relevant logicians on Mastodon. Here's a quick summary of the answers, although the short version seems to be "No", with Shawn Standefer …
Benedict Eastaugh's user avatar