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Is there a better proof of this fact in number theory/formal group theory?

Let $\Phi_n$ be the $n$'th cyclotomic polynomial, and put \begin{align*} a_n &= \Phi_n(1) \\ b_n &= \gcd\left(\left(\begin{array}{c} n \\ 1\end{array}\right),\dotsc,\left(\begin{array}{c} n \\ n-1\ …
Neil Strickland's user avatar