I am confused about a claim asserted in the paper ["Higher Order Schrodinger Equations"][1] published in IOP Science. The authors claim that a Fourier multiplier identity 

$$
\mathcal F(G(-\hbar^2 \Delta)\psi)(p) = G(|p|^2)\hat \psi(p)
$$

is valid for any real function $G$. I was initially dubious but decided to believe them on account of the prestige I accredited to IOP Science. Upon asking about this claim in another [question][2], I was kindly informed that the identity only holds for linear $G$. The authors, however, also claim that an exact solution in terms of Fourier multipliers holds for the semirelativistic equation $G(y) = -\sqrt{c^2 y + m^2 c^4}$. They then use this solution later in the paper to prove a bound on the power series approximation
$$G(y) = -mc^2 + \sum_{n=1}^N \frac{\alpha(n)}{m^{2n - 1} c^{2n-2}}(-y)^n$$
within its radius of convergence. What am I missing here? Is it really possible for them to treat ***any*** real valued function as a Fourier multiplier? If that were possible, then why would they be using a power series approximation in the first place? 

I quoted the passage for ease of reading. 

> **Solving a generalized Schrodinger equation:** Let $G:\mathbb R_+ \to \mathbb R$ be  real-valued function, and consider the generalized Schrodinger equation.
$$
i\hbar \frac{\partial \psi}{\partial t} + G(-\hbar^2 \Delta) \psi = 0
$$
(3.18)
The quantity $G(-\hbar^2 \Delta) \psi$ is defined a s a Fourier multiplier:
$$
\mathcal F(G(-\hbar^2 \Delta)\psi)(p) = G(|p|^2)\hat \psi(p)
$$
The most important aspect is that we want to encompass the following three cases.
>* Schrodinger equation: $G(y) = \frac{-1}{2m} y$.
>* Semi-relativistic equation (3.3): $G(y) = -\sqrt{c^2 y + m^2 c^4}$
>* Higher order Schrodinger equation  (3.9):
$$G(y) = -mc^2 + \sum_{n=1}^N \frac{\alpha(n)}{m^{2n - 1} c^{2n-2}}(-y)^n$$
Applying the Fourier transform to (3.18) with respect to the space variable, we obtain formally a first order ordinary differential equation in time for $\hat \psi$, in view of Proposition (2.1):
$$i\hbar \frac{\partial \hat \psi}{\partial t} + G(|p|^2) \hat \psi = 0$$
$$\hat \psi(0, p) = \hat \psi_0(p)$$
It is solved explicitly:
$$\hat \psi(p,t) = \hat \psi_0 (p) e^{-it G(|p|^2)}$$
Since $G$ is real-valued, $|\hat \psi(p,t)| = |\hat \psi_0(p)|$, and we obtain, from Proposition 2.1.

>**Proposition: 3.4** Let $s\in\mathbb R$ and $\psi_0\in H ^s(\mathbb R^d)$. Then the Cauchy problem (3.18) has a unique solution $\psi \in C(\mathbb R; H^s (\mathbb R^d))$, denoted by 
$$\psi(t) = e^{-itG(-\hbar^2\Delta)}\psi_0$$
It is given by (3.19). Moreover, we have 
$$\|\psi(\cdot, t)\|_{H^s} = \|\psi_0\|_{H^s}$$
for all $t \in \mathbb R$. In other words, the propagator $e^{-itG(-\hbar^2 \Delta)}$ is unitary on every Sobolev space $H^s(\mathbb R^d)$.


  [1]: https://hal.archives-ouvertes.fr/hal-00776157/document
  [2]: https://mathoverflow.net/questions/437500/find-f-mathbb-r3-to-mathbb-r-s-t-f-1-delta-f-f2-0