This question follows from the answer I gave to the question ["Wiener Meets Sobolev"][1] in the MathStackExchange Forum. I was wondering in the context of White Noise Space if the Local Time at x of a pre-Brownian motion is a notion that can be properly defined. Best regards PS: I posted this very same question on MathSE but didn't received any answer, so I allow myself to post it here (as advised by a MathSE Forum member). [1]: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/88183/sobolev-meets-wiener