Good day to All. 

Let $S_{1,n} = \sum_{i=1}^{n}\xi_{i}$, where $(\xi_{i})_{i \in \mathbb{N}}$ be independent RV with values in some Banach space.
 
On page 80 in [this book][1] author provides an example that illustrates the fact that in the infinite dimensional spaces it may be not enough to have assumptions on the distribution of the individual summands $\xi_{i}$ in order to control the deviations of $\lVert {S_{1,n}}\rVert $, where $\lVert \cdot \rVert $ is the norm of corresponding Banach space. Namely, in his example 3.0.1 the space $c_0$ (with the norm $\|x\|_{\infty} = \sup_{n \in \mathbb N} |x^{(n)}|$) of real-valued convergent to zero sequences is considered. 

My question: can't we also consider $l^{\infty} := \{x=(x^{(n)}) : \sup_{n\in \mathbb N}| x^{(n)}| \lt \infty\}$ (which is Banach space with respect to the norm  $\|x\|_{\infty} = \sup_{n \in \mathbb N} |x^{(n)}|$) and just the sequences $\xi_{j} = (\xi_{j}^{j}, j \in \mathbb{N})$ (without additional log weight ) and $\xi_{j}^{i} = \frac{1}{2}\delta_{-1}+\frac{1}{2}\delta_{1}$ i.i.d in $i,j$ as in example 3.0.1 to illustrate the same fact? 

  [1]: https://www.springer.com/de/book/9783540603115