Inspired by [this MO question about integrating binomial coefficients][1] and the answers, I was wondering whether integrating powers of binomial coefficients also relates to the respective sums. And indeed I have strong numerical evidence that 
$$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \binom{n}{x}^2 dx =\sum_{k=0}^n\binom{n}{k}^2$$. (The latter expression is of course $\binom{2n}{n}$.) 

So I'm wondering for which $l$ the following identity holds: 
$$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \binom{n}{x}^l dx =\sum_{k=0}^n\binom{n}{k}^l$$. 

(And furthermore one could conjecture that there are similar examples, where sum over binomials is identical to integral of the same expression over real numbers.) 

EDIT: 
Regarding the last sentence here an example: I conjecture (and have numerical evidence) that 
$$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} x\binom{n}{x} dx =\sum_{k=0}^n k\binom{n}{k}$$, the latter expression being of course $2^{n-1}n$.



  [1]: http://mathoverflow.net/questions/254881/binomial-again-and-again/