The [following identity on MATH.SE](http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/464769/how-to-prove-int-01-tan-1-left-frac-tanh-1x-tan-1x-pi-tanh-1)

$$\int_0^{1}\arctan(\frac{\mathrm{arctanh}\ x-\arctan{x}}{\pi+\mathrm{arctanh}\ x-\arctan{x}})\frac{dx}{x}=\frac{\pi}{8}\log\frac{\pi^2}{8}$$

seems to be very difficult to prove.

**Question:** I worked on this identity for several days without any success. Is there any clue how to prove this integral identity?