This question is somewhat related to Tilmans notorious problem in [this post][1]. Let $(M,\cdot)$ be a monoid with unit $1$ and set
$$(M,\cdot)^{\times} := \lbrace x \in M \mid \exists y \in M : xy=yx=1 \rbrace.$$
Let $k$ be a field (say $\mathbb Z/ 2 \mathbb Z$) and let $k[M]$ be the monoid ring of $M$ with coefficients in $k$. Consider now $$GL(k[M]) := (k[M],\cdot)^{\times}.$$

> **Question:**(answered by Torsten Ekedahl) Can it happen that $(M,\cdot)^{\times} = \lbrace 1 \rbrace$ but $\lbrace 1 \rbrace \subsetneq GL(k[M])$?

**EDIT:** Torsten Ekedahl has nicely answered the above question. However, since I was really missing a condition, I will take the opportunity to change it slightly.

>**Question:** If $(M,\cdot)^{\times} = \lbrace 1 \rbrace$, can $k[M]$ contain an invertible element $z \in GL(k[M])$, such that the coefficient of $z$ at $1$ is zero?


  [1]: http://mathoverflow.net/questions/17532/does-linearization-of-categories-reflect-isomorphism