If ℝ<sup>#</sup> exists then why is cof(θ<sup>L(ℝ)</sup>) = ω? Also I have the same question for the L(V<sub>λ+1</sub>) generalization (if it's actually a different proof; I presume it isn't), i.e. if θ is defined as the sup of the surjections in L(V<sub>λ+1</sub>) of V<sub>λ+1</sub> onto an ordinal, then if V<sub>λ+1</sub><sup>#</sup> exists why is cof(θ<sup>L(V<sub>λ+1</sub>)</sup>) = ω?