Let $U \subset \mathbb{R}^n$ be a bounded domain, and consider the following problem :
$$\left\{ \begin{array}{lcr} -\Delta u = 0 & & \text{in } U, \\ u = g & & \text{on } \partial U, \end{array} \right.$$
where $f$ and $g$ are given functions and $u \in C^2(U) \cap C(\overline{U})$.

**Does the existence of Green's function for $U$ imply the existence of a solution to the above Dirichlet problem ?**

I know that the existence of a solution to the above Dirichlet problem depends both on the regularity of $\partial U$ and on the choice of $g$. On the other side, Green's function is defined as $G(x,y) = \Psi(x-y) - \phi^x(y)$, $x,y \in U$ and $x \neq y$, where $\Psi$ is the fundamental solution to Laplace's equation (and thus independent of $g$) and $\phi^x$ satisfies
$$\left\{ \begin{array}{lcr} \Delta \phi^x = 0 & & \text{in } U, \\ \phi^x = \Psi(y-x) & & \text{on } \partial U, \end{array} \right.$$
which is also independent of $g$. If $u \in C^2(\overline{U})$ solves the Dirichlet problem, then
$$u(x) = - \int_{\partial U} g(y) \frac{\partial G}{\partial \nu}(x,y) dS(y) + \int_U f(y)G(x,y) dy, \hspace{3mm} x \in U.$$

So, I'd say no : *the existence of Green's function for $U$ does not imply the existence of a solution to the above Dirichlet problem*. Yet, I need someone to confirm this.

And now, the other way around...

**Does the existence of a solution to the above Dirichlet problem implies the existence of Green's function for $U$** ?

Thanks in advance.