I think that the euler characteristic is 0 for the following reasons. 

Firstly, the space $SL_N(\mathbb{R})$ is a bundle over the symmetric space $SO(N,\mathbb{R})\backslash SL_N(\mathbb{R}) = SP(n,\mathbb{R})=X$, the space of symmetric positive-definite real matrices of determinant 1. For a discussion of this symmetric space, see e.g. [Bridson-Haefliger II.10][1]. Then $SL_N(\mathbb{R})/SL_N(\mathbb{R})$ is a bundle over $X/SL_N(\mathbb{R})$ with fiber $SO(N,\mathbb{R})$. Note that this is an orbifold bundle, but that by passing to a torsion-free subgroup, one can assume that it is a manifold (and since you're interested in euler characteristic, this just multiplies by the index). 

Now the space $X/SL_N(\mathbb{Z})$ admits a [bordification by Borel-Serre.][2] Hence $SL_N(\mathbb{R})/SL_N(\mathbb{Z})$ should have a bordification by an $SO(N,\mathbb{R})$-bundle over the Borel-Serre bordification. Hence it should be the interior of a manifold with boundary $M$. In this case, $H^*_c(SL_N(\mathbb{R})/SL_N(\mathbb{Z}))\cong H^*(M,\partial M)$. Then from the long exact sequence, $\chi(H^*_c(M,\partial M))=\chi(M)-\chi(\partial M)$. 

But since $M$ and $\partial M$ are bundles with fiber $SO(N,\mathbb{R})$, and $\chi(SO(N,\mathbb{R}))=0$ (any Lie group has a nowhere vanishing vector field), we have $\chi(M)=\chi(\partial M)=0$. 

 


  [1]: https://www.math.bgu.ac.il/~barakw/rigidity/bh.pdf
  [2]: https://arxiv.org/abs/math/9611220