If $\zeta(s)$ is nonzero, but $\zeta(s)\pm\zeta(1-s)=0$, then by the functional equation of the Riemann zeta function we have $$ \pi^{-\frac{s}{2}}\Gamma\left(\frac{s}{2}\right)\pm \pi^{-\frac{1-s}{2}}\Gamma\left(\frac{1-s}{2}\right)=0.$$ That is, your question is just the Riemann Hypothesis plus a more elementary one similar to your earlier question about the zeros of $\Gamma(s)\pm\Gamma(1-s)$. I would expect that the exact same techniques work here, i.e. one can show by known estimates for the gamma function that all nonreal solutions of the displayed equation lie on $\Re s=1/2$.
EDIT. To keep up with new developments I now expect that within the critical strip all nonreal solutions of the displayed equation lie on $\Re s=1/2$. Moreover, it seems reasonable to believe that there are no nonreal solutions with $|\Re s|$ sufficiently large.