A (1,1)-topos (i.e. an ordinary Grothendieck topos) is called *localic* if the following two equivalent conditions hold:

* It is the category of sheaves on a (0,1)-site (i.e. a poset with a Grothendieck topology).
* It is a left exact localization of the category of presheaves on a (0,1)-category (= a poset).

The category of localic topoi is reflective in the category of all topoi, and equivalent to the category of locales.

For $0\le m\le n \le \infty$, *Higher topos theory* 6.4.5.7-8 shows that an $(n,1)$-topos is *$m$-localic* iff the analogue of the first condition holds: it is the category of $(n-1)$-sheaves on an $(m,1)$-site.  In 6.4.5.9 it is remarked that this is equivalent to it being a *topological* localization of the category of $\infty$-presheaves on an $(m,1)$-category.  The category of $m$-localic $(n,1)$-topoi is reflective in all $(n,1)$-topoi, and equivalent to the category of $(m,1)$-topoi.

When $n<\infty$, every localization of an $(n,1)$-topos is topological, so the two conditions are still equivalent, but this fails when $n=\infty$.  So what can be said about the larger class of $(\infty,1)$-topoi that are merely a *left exact* localization of $\infty$-presheaves on some $(m,1)$-category?  I believe this is equivalently the class of cotopological localizations of $m$-localic $(\infty,1)$-topoi, or the class of $(\infty,1)$-topoi that have a generating set consisting of $(m-1)$-truncated objects.  Does it have a name?  Has it been studied?