$\newcommand\abs[1]{\lvert#1\rvert}\newcommand\Abs[1]{\left\lvert#1\right\rvert}$**Question**: Let $f(x)$ be a continuous real-valued function defined on the interval $[0, 1]$. Does the following inequality hold? $$\int_{0}^{1}\int_{0}^{1}\dotsi\int_0^1\int_0^1\abs{f(x_{1})+f(x_{2})+\dotsb+f(x_{n})}dx_1 \; dx_{2}\dotsm\;dx_{n} \ge \int_0^1 \abs{f(x)}dx.$$ Even the case $n=3$ would be interesting. This is inspired by the case $n=2$, which was a Putnam problem from 2003, as follows. **Theorem**. Let $f(x)$ be a continuous real-valued function defined on the interval $[0, 1]$. Then $$\int_0^1\int_0^1\abs{f(x)+f(y)}dx \; dy \ge \int_0^1 \abs{f(x)}dx.$$ **Proof** by Kent Merryfield: Let $P$ be the subset of $[0, 1]$ on which $f\ge 0$ and $N$ the set on which $f < 0$. As is conventional, define $f^+(x) = \max(f(x), 0)$ and $f^-(x) = \max(-f(x), 0)$. Thus, $f = f^+ - f^-$, $|f| = f^+ + f^-$, and $f^+$ equals $0$ everywhere on $N$ while $f^-$ equals zero everywhere on $P$. Then \begin{align*}\int_0^1 \int_0^1 \abs{f(x) + f(y)}\,dx\,dy &= \int_P \int_P \abs{f(x) + f(y)}\,dx,dy + \int_P \int_N \abs{f(x) + f(y)} \,dx\, dy \\ &+ \int_N \int_P \abs{f(x) + f(y)}\, dx \,dy+ \int_N \int_N \abs{f(x) + f(y)}\, dx\, dy.\end{align*} We tackle these terms one at a time. \begin{align*}\int_P \int_P \abs{f(x) + f(y)}\, dx\, dy &= \int_P \int_P (f(x) + f(y))\,dx \,dy\\ &= \abs P \int_P f(x)\,dx + \abs P \int_P f(y) \,dy = 2\abs P\int_P f^+(x) \,dx\end{align*} where we use the notation $\abs P$ to mean the measure (total net length) of the set $P$. Similarly, $\int_N \int_N \abs{f(x) + f(y)} \,dx \,dy = 2\abs N\int_N f^-(x) \,dx$. The other two terms are equal to each other (as shown by interchanging $x$ and $y$). \begin{align*}\int_P \int_N \abs{f(x) + f(y)} \,dx \,dy &= \int_P \int_N \abs{f^+(x) - f^-(y)} \,dx \,dy\\ &\ge \Abs{\int_P \int_N f^+(x) - f^-(y) \,dx \,dy}\\ &= \Abs{ \abs N\int_P f^+(x) \,dx - \abs P\int_N f^-(y) \,dy}\end{align*} If we let $A = \int_P f^+(x) \,dx$, $B = \int_N f^-(x) \,dx$, and $I = \int_0^1 \int_0^1 \abs{f(x) + f(y)} \,dx \,dy$, then we have found that $I \ge 2\abs P A + 2\abs N B + 2\abs{(\abs N A - \abs P B)}$. For convenience, we now square this: \begin{align*}I^2 &\ge 4\left[(\abs P A + \abs N B)^2 + (\abs N A - \abs P B)^2 + (\text{other positive terms})\right]\\ &\ge 4(\abs P^2A^2 + \abs N^2B^2 + \abs N^2A^2 + \abs P^2B^2)\\ &= 4(\abs P^2 + \abs N^2)(A^2 + B^2).\end{align*} But for real $a$ and $b$, $(a + b)^2 \le 2(a^2 + b^2)$ since $2(a^2 + b^2) - (a + b)^2 = (a - b)^2$. Hence, $2(\abs P^2 + \abs N^2) \ge (\abs P + \abs N)^2 = 1^2$, since $\abs P + \abs N$ is the measure of the interval $[0, 1]$. Also, $2(A^2 + B^2) \ge (A + B)^2 = \left(\int_0^1 \abs{f(x)} \,dx\right)^2$. $\square$