**Question**: Is it true that every finite measure space $(X,\scr F,\mu)$ can be $\sigma$-embedded in the completion of the space $[0,1]^K$ (equipped with a product of Lebesgue measure) for some set $K$? Here, $f:\scr F\to \scr G$ is a $\sigma$-embedding of the measure space $(X,\scr F,\mu)$ into $(Y,\scr G,\nu)$ iff $f$ is one-to-one, and preserves measure, complements and countable unions. Here's what I have so far: Maharam's Theorem implies the measure algebra of $X$ is $\sigma$-isomorphic to the measure algebra of a disjoint union of countably many copies of $[0,1]^{K_n}$, and of course the disjoint union $\sigma$-embeds in the measure algebra of $[0,1]^K$ for large enough $K$. Combining this with a lifting, we get map from $\scr F$ in the measurable sets of $[0,1]^K$ that preserves measure, complements and finite unions and is almost one-to-one (i.e., $f(A)=f(B)$ implies $\mu(A\Delta B)=0$). So far I'm missing two ingredients: I have almost one-to-one instead of one-to-one and embedding instead of $\sigma$-embedding. It looks like I can get the embedding to be one-to-one by making $K$ large enough that there be a null subset $N$ of $[0,1]^K$ of the same cardinality as $X$ and modifying the map $f$ from $\scr F$ to the measurable subsets of $[0,1]^K$ to $g(A)=(f(A)\backslash N)\cup h[A]$, where $h$ is a bijection between $X$ and $N$. This will be an embedding into the completion of $[0,1]^K$. But I want a $\sigma$-embedding... I know next to nothing about measure algebras and the like, so I may be missing a completely standard and obvious thing.