Assume that $f:[0,1]\to [0,1]$ is an increasing diffeomorphism so that $(f''(x)/f'(x))'<0$ and that $f''(0)=0$. It seems to me that $$\frac{1-f(x)^2}{1-x^2}\le f'(x)$$ on $[0,1]$. But no proof so far.