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Joel David Hamkins
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No, because the latter theories has parametrically definable automorphisms that swap two equivalent classes, but the former theory is definably rigid. If the theories were bi-interpretable, then we could fix a copy of the model with two equivalent classes (having the same elements), and inside this model we could define a copy of MK, and inside that define a copy of the original model, but because the automorphism would have to fix the definable interpretation but swap the classes, it would ruin the bi-interpretability feature.

Joel David Hamkins
  • 236.5k
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