We have a short exact sequence $1 \to H \to G \to K \to 1 $, where $H$ and $K$ are $\textbf{abelian}$ residually finite groups. My quiestion is: it is true that G is then a residually finite group?.
Thanks and Besties!
Is an extension of two residually finite groups a residually finite group?
Claudio Bravo
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