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Mikhail Bondarko
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When an element of a ring that is divisible by a finite set of elements is necessarily divisible by their product?

In a commutative ring $R$, when does the assumption $r_i\mid r$ for $1\le i\le n$ imply $\prod_{1\le i\le n} r_i\mid r$ (when $r_i$ are fixed)?

Does there exist any criterion for this implication that is related to regular sequences?

Mikhail Bondarko
  • 16.9k
  • 4
  • 34
  • 97