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dennis
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Under what conditions can an orientable Riemannian 3-manifold be defined implicitly?

Under what conditions can an orientable Riemannian 3-manifold $\Sigma$ be defined implicitly? What I mean by implicitly is that there exists a function $f:\mathbb{R}^n\to \mathbb{R}^m$, such that $\Sigma$ is diffeomorphic to $f^{-1}(0)$, and the Euclidean metric on $\mathbb{R}^n$ pulled back to $f^{-1}(0)$ is equal to the metric on $\Sigma$.

dennis
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