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edited Oct 19, 2010 at 22:52

Bjørn Kjos-Hanssen

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Can the Knaster-Tarski theorem be proved using the Schroeder-Bernstein theorem?

The reverse can be done easily and the proof is well known I am wondering if the exact same argument can be used to prove reverse as well.

lattices set-theory lo.logic ra.rings-and-algebras

asked Oct 17, 2010 at 10:23

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