Disclaimer : the following reasoning is a physicist's one and as such may not be suitable for this website. Still it may give rise to potentially interesting insights so I ask it anyway.

I stumbled upon an article whose abstract claims that for any sufficiently large  $ x $  and any  $ \delta>0.525 $, one has  $\pi(x+x^{\delta})-\pi(x)\gg_{k}\dfrac{x^{\delta}}{\log^{k}x}$  
where $\pi(y)$ is the number of primes less than or equal to the real number $y$.
 
My idea is to make the rhs equal to 1, so that one would formally get : 

 $ x^{\delta}\approx\log^{k}x $ 

Hence  $ \delta\approx\dfrac{k\log\log x}{\log x} $ .

As the latter quantity attains a maximum of $\delta=1/e$ (as can be easily checked by calculus), this leads, assuming  $ k $ can be taken equal to 1, to the following conjecture : 

For any large enough  $ x $, one has  $ \pi(x+x^{1/e})-\pi(x)\geq 1 $ .

Note that this is stronger than what can be obtained assuming RH, but weaker than Cramer's conjecture.

My question is : is the considered conjecture supported by numerical computation ? Is there a better (hence "more rigorous") heuristics that leads to the same conclusion ?