Skip to main content
1 of 9
Iosif Pinelis
  • 128k
  • 8
  • 107
  • 229

This inequality is false even when $f=g=1$:

enter image description here

So, the difference between the left-hand side of your inequality and its right-hand side is $>0$.

Iosif Pinelis
  • 128k
  • 8
  • 107
  • 229