Given two Banach spaces $X$ and $Y$ with a continues inclusion $X\subset Y$, and another couple $X’ \subset Y’$ with the same properties. Take $f : Y \longrightarrow Y’$ linear continues, such that $f_{\mid X}$ induce a linear continues map from $X$ to $X'$. My question is for $0<s<1$ and $p>1$, is the following true:

$(X\cap Ker(f),Ker(f))_{s,p}=Ker(f) \cap (X,Y)_{s,p}$?

Here I'm considering the K-method for the interpolation.

The inclusion $(X\cap Ker(f),Ker(f))_{s,p}\subset Ker(f) \cap (X,Y)_{s,p}$ follow directly from the definition. My problem is the other inclusion?

It's clear that if we have $Z\subset Y$ then in general the following is not true:

$(X\cap Z,Z)_{s,p}=Z \cap (X,Y)_{s,p}$,

someone can take $X=H^{2}(U)$, $Z=H^{1}(U)$, $Y=L^{2}(U)$, $s=\frac{1}{2}$, and $p=2$. But this does not contradict our case (cause $Z$ here is note even close in $Y$).

If what im asking is not true. Is it true under the following assumptions:

-$f(X)$ is closed in $X'$, and $f(Y)$ is closed in $Y'$, and

-$f$ is open onto $f(Y)$, and $f_{\mid X}$ is open onto $f(X)$.