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Sure. $a\equiv b\pmod{\mathfrak{P}}$ just means $a-b\in\mathfrak{P}$. Taking norms to any subfield $K$ of $\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_n)$ (e.g., $\mathbb{Q}$ or $\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_m)$) gives you $N_{\mathbb{Q}(\zeta_n)/K}(a-b)\in N_{\mathbb{Q(\zeta_n)}/K}\mathfrak{P}.$ For $K=\mathbb{Q}$, the latter norm is just $p^f$ where $f$ is the order of $p\pmod{n}$.