Let $G$ be a topological group. We define an equivalent relation on $G$ as follows: For $a,b\in G$ we set $a\sim b$ if the following two maps are topological conjugate: $$x\mapsto ax,\qquad x\mapsto bx$$ By topological conjugacy of two maps $f, g$ on a topological space $G$ we mean, as usual, existence of a homeomorphism $H:G\to G$ with $Hf=gH$. Obviousely the usual group theoretical conjugate elements are equivalent in this new sense. But possibly the equivalent classes are larger than algebraic conjugacy class. In the finite (discrete ) group case the equivalent relation is the following: two elements are equivalents if the corresponding permutations are conjugate in $P(G)$, the permutation group of $G$. **My first question:** >In the finite group case, the cardinality of the conjugacy class of an element $a$ is $\frac{|G|}{|C(a)|}$ where $C(a)$ is a commutator of $a$. Now what is a formula for the cardinality of an equivalent class containig $a$. I mean a formula in terms of $G$ itself not in terms of $P(G)$. More precisely can we canonically associate a subgroup $\tilde{C}(a)\subset G$ to every element $a\in G$ such that the equivalent class $[a]$ is in bijection correspondance to $\tilde{C}(a)$ in a canonical way. Another question: From undergraduate group theory I remember that various equivalents relations on finite groups enable us to obtain useful counting theorems. Even Sylows theorem were direct or undirect consequence of some equivalent relations. So I wonder is this equivalent relation useful to produce some new counting results? **My second question:** > For the obvious case $G=\mathbb{R}$ we get triviality. There are only two equivalent class. On the other hand for circle case every equivalent class is the (singleton) conjugacy class since the rotation number is a topological invariant. Are there examples for which the measure of an equivalent class approach to zero or approach to 1 (the Haar measure)? Is every equivalent class necessarilly measurable? I mean can one produce a sequence of example such that an equivalent class has measure $1/n$ or $1-1/n$? This possibly prevent us to give finite group example