Let $f$ be an *infinitely differentiable function* on $[0,1]$ and suppose that for each $x \in [0,1]$ there is an integer $n \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $f^{(n)}(x)=0$. Then does $f$ coincide on $[0,1]$ with some polynomial? If yes then how.

I thought of using Weierstrass approximation theorem, but couldn't succeed.