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Bjørn Kjos-Hanssen
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Homeomorphisms and "mod finite"

Suppose $f:C\to C$ is a homeomorphism, where $C=\{0,1\}^{\mathbb N}$ is Cantor space. Suppose $f$ preserves $=^*$ (equality on all but finitely many coordinates). Does it follow that $f$ also reflects $=^*$? That is, if $$x=^* y \implies f(x)=^* f(y)$$ does it follow that: $$x=^* y \iff f(x)=^* f(y)?$$

Using Axiom of Choice we can show that a bijection of $C$ that preserves $=^*$ need not reflect $=^*$, so the continuity assumptions are not superfluous...

Bjørn Kjos-Hanssen
  • 24.8k
  • 3
  • 58
  • 114