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edited title

edited Jun 27, 2020 at 13:05

Zuhair Al-Johar

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Is it consistent to have a function that is sensitive to subset relation from the power set of a set to that set?

Is it consistent with $ZF$ to have a set $S$ and a function $F: P(S) \to S$ such that:

$\forall X,Y \in P(S): X \subsetneq Y \implies F(X) \neq F(Y)$

set-theory lo.logic

asked Jun 27, 2020 at 12:33

Zuhair Al-Johar

11.3k
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