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john
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They are not always equivalent. Consider the ordinal numbers. Strong induction

$$\forall x (\forall y (y < x \rightarrow \varphi (y)) \rightarrow \varphi (x)) \rightarrow \forall z~ \varphi (z)$$

holds, but weak induction

$$\forall x (\varphi (x) \rightarrow \varphi (x^+)) \rightarrow \varphi (0) \rightarrow \forall z ~\varphi (z)$$

does not. For example, consider $\varphi (x) \equiv x < \omega$.

user76284
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