Start with A an abelian category and form the derived category D(A). Take a triangle (not necessarily distinguished) and take it's cohomology. We obtain a long sequence (not necessarily exact). If the triangle is distinguished it is exact. How about the converse: if the long sequence in cohomology is exact does it follow that the triangle is distinguished? (My guess is no, but I can't find a counter-example).
distinguished triangles and cohomology
Dragos Fratila
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