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Iosif Pinelis
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Let $A_n:=\{x\colon f_n(x)\le1\}$ and $B_n:=\{x\colon f_n(x)>1\}$, where $f_n:=\frac{d\mu_n}{d\mu}$. Then the total variation of $\mu_n-\mu$ is $$\|\mu_n-\mu\|=\int_{B_n}(f_n-1)d\mu+\int_{A_n}(1-f_n)d\mu=2\int_{A_n}(1-f_n)d\mu\to0$$ by dominated convergence if $f_n\to1$ in measure wrt $\mu$.

Iosif Pinelis
  • 127.7k
  • 8
  • 107
  • 229