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Jeff Strom
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Yes. In fact $\bigcup_{n\geq 1} P_n $ is the set of all primes. Serre proved that, for each odd prime $p$, there is some very predictable $p$-torsion in $\pi_{k+(p-1)}(S^k)$, for example.

Jeff Strom
  • 12.5k
  • 3
  • 48
  • 76