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Michael Albanese
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Relationship between universal coefficient theorem and $[K(\mathbb{Z},n), K(G,n)]$?

In short, I'm wondering whether the universal coefficient theorem can be understood/reinterpreted by using maps of Eilenberg-MacLane spaces. This is a wishy-washy idea and I don't have evidence to back it up, but it would be very nice if the "freebie" cohomology classes in $H^n(X; G)$ we get when we're changing our coefficients from $\mathbb{Z}$ to $G$ (i.e., those that come simply from tensoring with the new group) corresponded to elements of $[K(\mathbb{Z}, n), K(G, n)]$. Then, the other classes that arise from $\operatorname{Ext} /\operatorname{Tor}$ would correspond to elements of $[X, K(G,n)]$ which don't factor through $K(\mathbb{Z},n)$. Is anything like this even remotely true?

This question is in part motivated by the responses to an earlier question of mine, which mentioned that viewing $H^n(X; G)$ as $[X, K(G,n)]$ helps us understand cohomology operations (in that case, Steenrod squaring). It seems as if the representability of cohomology is probably only useful for studying honest cohomology operations, but I don't think I understand exactly what that means well enough to deduce whether changing coefficients qualifies...

Aaron Mazel-Gee
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