*We work in $\mathsf{ZFC+V=L}$.*

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Define a **plausible theory** to be a theory $T\subseteq\mathcal{L}_{\omega_1,\omega}$ in an $\omega_1$-finite language which is $\omega_1$-c.e. and $\omega_1$-finitely satisfiable; [that is](https://projecteuclid.org/ebooks/perspectives-in-logic/Higher-Recursion-Theory/toc/pl/1235422631), $T$ is a theory in a countable language which is $\Sigma_1$-definable over $L_{\omega_1}$ (with parameters) and every countable subtheory of $T$ is satisfiable. 

Since $L_{\omega_1}$ is uncountable, [Barwise compactness](https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0049237X0870689X) does not apply and plausible theories need **not** be satisfiable. That said, every plausible theory is "generically" satisfiable: they all become satisfiable after forcing with $\mathit{Col}(\omega,\omega_1)$, since in the generic extension we can apply Barwise compactness. 

I'm interested in measuring the difficulty of "satisfiabilizing" a plausible theory via forcing. Specifically, set $T_0\trianglelefteq T_1$ iff $T_0$ is satisfiable in every generic extension in which $T_1$ is satisfiable. *(Note that by absoluteness of $\mathcal{L}_{\omega_1,\omega}$-semantics we don't have to worry about theories becoming unsatisfiable.)* As usual, this preorder induces an equivalence relation $\approx$ and a corresponding poset $\mathcal{Plaus}$ of **plausibility degrees**.

I'm generally interested in the "shape" of $\mathcal{Plaus}$, but in particular the following question seems particularly natural:

> **Question.** Does $\mathcal{Plaus}$ have *coatoms*?

(See below for a proof that $\mathcal{Plaus}$ does have a top element.) I strongly suspect that the answer is negative, but I don't see how to prove that.

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Very briefly, here's what I already know. $\mathcal{Plaus}$ is a bounded lattice: ${\bf 0}$ = "already satisfiable," ${\bf 1}$ = "requires $\omega_1^L<\omega_1$," $S\sqcup T$ = "disjoint union of models," and $S\sqcap T=\{\sigma\vee\tau:\sigma\in S,\tau\in T\}$. In fact $\mathcal{Plaus}$ is countably complete, by the obvious extensions of those operations. Moreover, ${\bf 0}$ is not the meet of countably many nonzero elements, so a fortiori $\mathcal{Plaus}$ has at most one atom *(contra an earlier claim of mine - thanks to Farmer S)*. Finally, $\mathcal{Plaus}$ is not linear and has $\omega_1$-many degrees; these facts follow from some easy-but-tedious forcing arguments, whose details I'm happy to add if anyone's interested.

Unfortunately, none of this seems particularly relevant to the coatom question (except the existence of $\mathbf 1$ which is needed to pose it in the first place).