Let $C_n(x) = \frac{n!}{\Gamma(x)\cdot \Gamma(n-x)}$
Is the following true: $\int_{0}^{n} [C_n(x)\cdot y^x \cdot (1-y)^{n-x}dx] = 1$??
just wondering
Let $C_n(x) = \frac{n!}{\Gamma(x)\cdot \Gamma(n-x)}$
Is the following true: $\int_{0}^{n} [C_n(x)\cdot y^x \cdot (1-y)^{n-x}dx] = 1$??
just wondering