Let $\omega$ be the set of non-negative integers. If $f,g:\omega\to\{-1,1\}$ are maps, then we say $f,g$ are *almost orthogonal* if there is a positive integer $C_0\in \omega$ such that for all $n\in\omega$ we have $$\Big|\sum_{k=0}^n \big(f(k)\cdot g(k)\big)\Big|< C_0.$$

An *infinite Hadamard matrix* is a map $M:\omega^2 \to \{-1,1\}$ such that whenever $i\neq j \in\omega$ then the "row vectors" $M[i,\cdot]$ and $M[j,\cdot]$ are almost orthogonal.  (Given $a\in\omega$, the map $M[a,\cdot]:\omega\to\{-1,1\}$ is defined by $n\mapsto M(a, n)$.) It takes a bit of work to show that infinite Hadamard matrices [do exist](https://mathoverflow.net/questions/477848/almost-orthogonal-maps-f-omega-to-1-1).

For $M:\omega^2\to\{-1,1\}$, the *transpose* $M^{\text{tr}}:\omega^2 \to \omega$ is defined by $(a,b) \in\omega^2 \mapsto M(b,a)$.

**Question.** If $M$ is an infinite Hadamard matrix, is the transpose $M^{\text{tr}}$ also an infinite Hadamard matrix?