The answer is yes. Indeed, let 
$u_n:=f_n-H$ and $v:=g-H$, where 
\begin{equation}
	H(x):=\int_0^x(x-t)h(t)\,dt
\end{equation}
for $x\in[0,1]$. 
Then $u_n\to v$ pointwise and $u_n$ is concave for each $n$ (see the Detail below). So, by Lemma 1 below, $u_n\to v$ in $L^1[0,1]$ and hence $\lim \int_0^1 f_n=\int_0^1 g$. 

**Detail:** By Taylor's theorem with the integral form of the remainder and the definition of $H$, for $x\in[0,1]$,  
\begin{equation}
	u_n(x)=f_n(x)-H(x)=f_n(0)+f'_n(0)x+\int_0^1(x-t)_+[f''_n(t)-h(t)]\,dt. 
\end{equation}
Now the concavity of $u_n$ follows because $(x-t)_+$ is convex in $x$ and $f''_n<h$.

**Lemma 1.** *Suppose that $f_n$ are convex real-valued functions on $[0,1]$ converging pointwise to a real-valued function $f$. Then $f_n\to f$ in $L^1[0,1]$.*

*Proof.* The function $f$ is real-valued and convex and hence bounded from below. So, by [Corollary 3][1], all the functions $f_n$ are uniformly bounded from below. On the other hand, all the convex functions $f_n$ are uniformly bounded from above by $\sup_n(f_n(0)\vee f_n(1))$. So, Lemma 1 follows by dominated convergence. 

[1]: https://arxiv.org/abs/1307.3806